It is astonishing that \(e^\pi\) and \(\pi^e\) are defined. It is even more amazing that we can prove \[ e^\pi> \pi^e.\]
How would we go about convincing someone that this amazing inequality is true?
Problem
It is astonishing that \(e^\pi\) and \(\pi^e\) are defined. It is even more amazing that we can prove \[ e^\pi> \pi^e.\]
How would we go about convincing someone that this amazing inequality is true?