When does the trapezium rule give the exact answer here?

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[Choose the one correct answer and explain your reasoning.]

The graph \(y=f(x)\) of a function is drawn below for \(0 \le x \le 1\).

The trapezium rule is then used to estimate

\[\displaystyle\int_0^1 \! f(x) \, \mathrm{d}x\]

by dividing \(0 \le x \le 1\) into \(n\) equal intervals. The estimate calculated will equal the actual integral when

1. \(n\) is a multiple of \(4\);

2. \(n\) is a multiple of \(6\);

3. \(n\) is a multiple of \(8\);

4. \(n\) is a multiple of \(12\).